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Insuhk Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Wrong use of definite article??

quoted from CNN.A government warning, known as the J-Alert, said that "a missile" had passed over Hokkaido, northern Japan, before landing in the Pacific, NHK reported. "The government is advising people to stay away from anything that could be missile debris," the broadcaster said.Japan's Coast Guard said no damage has been reported by the fallen object.----------------------------My question is: Why did the writer use "the" before "fallen object"? From the context, no fallen object has been found. He just mentioned the broadcaster's saying "The government is advising people to stay away from anything that could be missile debris." Then he wrote as if any fallen object were found by putting "the" before "fallen object." I think he should've written like Japan's Coast Guard said no damage has been reported by a fallen object. Please let me know if I'm correct.
  

Top answer

Insuhk My question is: Why did the writer use "the" before "fallen object"? Presumably, 'the fallen object' refers to the earlier 'a missile'.

  • Insuhk My question is: Why did the writer use "the" before "fallen object"?
  • Presumably, 'the fallen object' refers to the earlier 'a missile'.
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1 Answers
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InsuhkMy question is: Why did the writer use "the" before "fallen object"?

Presumably, 'the fallen object' refers to the earlier 'a missile'.

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