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Lunchbox Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

would/would have

"In those days, he would have done anything to make her happy."

vs.

"In those days, he would do anything to make her happy."

I just made these sentences up, but I don't understand the difference between the use of "would" and "would have." The word "would" is already the past-tense of "will," isn't it? So why would "would have" also work as well?

Thanks!!
  

Top answer

"> He didn't succeed in making her happy. " He made her happy.

  • "> He didn't succeed in making her happy.
  • " He made her happy.
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3 Answers
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<"In those days, he would have done anything to make her happy."> He didn't succeed in making her happy.

"In those days, he would do anything to make her happy." He made her happy.
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Although finite forms (would) are Past tense, the meanings of 'would' in these sentences differ.

In 'In those days, he would do anything to make her happy' 'would' is used to describe habits or characteristic behaviour in the Past, as in: He’d always turn and wave at the end of the street. With this meaning the tense of 'will' depends on whether the meaning of
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"In those days, he would have done anything to make her happy." hypothetical, perhaps he did/didn't, but he wanted to

vs.

"In those days, he would do anything to make her happy." was doing that on a regular basis

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