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Sft M Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

would have had

He would have had to calm enough.

What does it mean actually?

What tense is it?
  

Top answer

It's a modal perfect form, but it doesn't mean anything. People don't 'calm enough'.

— Fivejedjon

  • It's a modal perfect form, but it doesn't mean anything.
  • People don't 'calm enough'.
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6 Answers
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It's a modal perfect form, but it doesn't mean anything. People don't 'calm enough'.
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He would have had to be calm and quiet.
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AlpheccaStarsHe would have had to be calm and quiet.
I am definitely getting old. That simple addition just did not occur to me. A lesson to learners: an apparently minor slip can make your message incomprehensible to some.
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I was thinking more like "calm down" and the "down" was missing.
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Actually this line is from a British film. And there was no "be". However "calm" can be used as both adjective and verb. Here they used it as a verb, so it is OK without"be". Like- "He has to do it".
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sft MHere they used it as a verb, so it is OK without"be".
No. The problem is not the verb, calm, but the word "enough."

He would have had to calm down.
He would have had to calm down enough to regain his senses.
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