Without "s"?
Hello,
Please tell me why there is no "s" at the end of "love", "see", and "reverence" in these sentences in the Bible (KJV):
Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love (s)? his wife even as himself; and the wife see (s)? that she reverence (s)? her husband (Ephesians 5:33) (KJV)
I wonder why those verbs are not formed with a third-person singular. Please help!
Thank you!
Top answer
olivecar Please tell me why there is no "s" at the end of "love", "see", and "reverence" in these sentences (1) Because the first two are not finite verbs. The finite verb is 'let' as a causative verb: let love, let see . and (2) Because the third is a subjunctive in an older use, where 'see' (like 'insist' and 'suggest' nowadays) takes the subjunctive object clause.
- olivecar Please tell me why there is no "s" at the end of "love", "see", and "reverence" in these sentences (1) Because the first two are not finite verbs.
- The finite verb is 'let' as a causative verb: let love, let see .
- and (2) Because the third is a subjunctive in an older use, where 'see' (like 'insist' and 'suggest' nowadays) takes the subjunctive object clause.
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olivecarPlease tell me why there is no "s" at the end of "love", "see", and "reverence" in these sentences
(1) Because the first two are not finite verbs. The finite verb is 'let' as a causative verb: let love, let see.
and
(2) Because the third is a subjunctive in an older use, where 'see' (like 'insist' and 'suggest' nowadays) takes th
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