Winner Take Nothing
I suspect someone had already asked the question that I am about to ask, if so, my apologies to the people who are going to answer me. The question is, why did Hemingway called his book "Winner Take Nothing" instead of "Winner Takes Nothing"?
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" Today, the phrase "winner takes all" is also heard, so either one is acceptable. As to why it is "take" instead of "takes" in the idiom ... possibly the wording reflects either the imperative or the subjunctive mood (rather than the usual indicative).
- " Today, the phrase "winner takes all" is also heard, so either one is acceptable.
- As to why it is "take" instead of "takes" in the idiom ...
- possibly the wording reflects either the imperative or the subjunctive mood (rather than the usual indicative).
- Similar phrases, like "dog eat dog," are also found in English.
- I hope this answers your question.
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The title is a play on the common expression "winner take all." So the opposite would be "winner take nothing."
Today, the phrase "winner takes all" is also heard, so either one is acceptable.
As to why it is "take" instead of "takes" in the idiom ... possibly the wording reflects either the imperative or the subjunctive mood (rather than the usual indicative). Similar phrases,
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