That's what I'd known, and [1] had been my only choice. However, I was told you could and do say "It will be years before something will happen" by a native speaker of English. And my belief of the rule shattered. I was actually asking about the two sentences below, wondering if the rule could be broken when the time frame is in the past:
I'm sure some native speakers do use 'will' in the dependent clause-- after all, there are 400 million of us-- but it is not so common. You can say it, of course. This use of the present for future is unique to those tenses and the dependent-clause situation. Your next two sentences are a different case:
No-- now you have placed the accident before the arrest (naturally), so future-in-the-past no longer applies: The police would arrest him after the accident happened.