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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Will have + participle

hello, I think I am going to apply for a account.

I feel sorry to have asked so many questions before.

this is my last question before using my own account.

1. You have had dinner already, I suppose.

2. You will have had dinner already, I suppose.

To me, actually the first sentence without "will" is clear enough to express my message, however why is "will" inserted in the second sentence?

Thank you so much.
  

Top answer

They are different times, Anon. #1-- S/he is asking about a dinner in the past. #2-- S/he is asking about a dinner in the future.

  • They are different times, Anon.
  • #1-- S/he is asking about a dinner in the past.
  • #2-- S/he is asking about a dinner in the future.
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16 Answers
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They are different times, Anon.

#1-- S/he is asking about a dinner in the past.
#2-- S/he is asking about a dinner in the future.
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thank you, Mister Micawber.

By the way, what is the meaning of this Japanese word - Anon?

I didn't mean to be rude, but I am afraid that this sentence can also refer to the present.

S/he will have had dinner already, I suppose.

another similar example:

They will have reached by now, I suppose.

Therefore, hopefully no offence given, could you t
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By the way, what is the meaning of this Japanese word - Anon?-- It is not Japanese; it is a nickname for Anonymous. I do not use Japanese here; this is an English language website.


I didn't mean to be rude, but I am afraid that this sentence can also refer to the present. S/he will have had dinner already, I suppose.-- No; as it stands it refers to the future, as
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Thanks, Mister Micawber.

Thanks again.
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Mister MicawberAlthough the result in real life may refer to a real present situation, it is not a grammatical present.


Hi,

Are you rerferring to this sentence? S/he will have had dinner already, I suppose.

Are you talking about a situation where she laready would have had dinner, but using 'will' stresses that this
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Oh, I see. Yes, I guess that's what it does:

She will have had dinner by now. (more certain)

She would have had dinner by now. (more tentative)
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Mister MicawberShe will have had dinner by now. (more certain)
She would have had dinner by now. (more tentative

So we wouldn't call the former the future perfect--even though it has the same structure?
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I think we must keep the name. The form has a name; it just serves various purposes. That is why contemporary grammarians are trying to get rid of the word 'gerund', for instance, in favor of '-ing verb form'.
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Mister MicawberI think we must keep the name. The form has a name; it just serves various purposes. That is why contemporary grammarians are trying to get rid of the word 'gerund', for instance, in favor of '-ing verb form'.

True. Good point. Cheers.
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I would like to investigate this further.

If you have any texts I could read, it would be great to have a squiz. A simple google search is the extent of my research usually--probably why I get myself into trouble.

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