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Rpsh Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

will have been

One woman she interviewed first turned to prostitution at the age of 68. About 400 women work in the park, she says, all of whom will have been taught as children that respect and honour were worth more than anything.

I know the meaning of this sentence. I just feel confused that why the writer used a future perfect tense here? Is it a typo? ( I think it maybe a subjunctive mood if using the word 'would' substitute 'will' )
  

Top answer

rpsh Is it a typo? 68?

— Mister Micawber

  • rpsh Is it a typo?
  • 68?
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12 Answers
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It is not future perfect. 'Will' is used to assert certainty.

They will have been taught = It is certain that they were taught.
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Mister Micawber68?
Why not? I do hope you are not implying that we 68-year-olds are past it?
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fivejedjon I do hope you are not implying that we 68-year-olds are past it?
Not at all, but I would have turned to it much earlier.
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No, I mean the word in the title—'will'. I just feel confused about the grammar.
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Then, could you tell me the property of this word 'will' here?
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Sir, does the phrase 'past it' you used here mean 'Too old to be of any use or any good at anything'?
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Among other things 'will' can be used to express a speaker's certainty about:

a present situation: Mary's children are all away at university now, so she will be very lonely.
a future situation: Mary will be very lonely when all her children are away at university next year.
a past situation: Mary will have been very lonely when all her chil
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rpshSir, does the phrase 'past it' you used here mean 'Too old to be of any use or any good at anything'?
Yes
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I consider this as a tense for ten years... So the real connotation of this word 'will' should be a kind of certainty! Thank you sooooo much!
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