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Eipjoo Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Why the past perfect tense?

In the example:

A hundred and fifty points lost. That put Gryffindor in last place. In one night, they'd ruined any chance Gryffindor had had for the house cup. Harry felt as though the bottom had dropped out of his stomach. How could they ever make up for this?

I think the yellow sentence needs to be changed into below:
‘In one night, they'd ruined any chance Gryffindor would have [or would have had] for the house cup.’
If then, why does the writer use the past perfect tense?
  

Top answer

eipjoo In one night, they'd ruined any chance Gryffindor would have [or would have had] for the house cup. That is another way to express it. Also, might have had for the house cup.

— CalifJim

  • eipjoo In one night, they'd ruined any chance Gryffindor would have [or would have had] for the house cup.
  • That is another way to express it.
  • Also, might have had for the house cup.
  • The author was certain that Gryffindor had the chance, so she did not express the idea with a modal verb like would or might .
  • CJ
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3 Answers
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eipjooIn one night, they'd ruined any chance Gryffindor would have [or would have had] for the house cup.
That is another way to express it. Also, might have had for the house cup.

The author was certain that Gryffindor had the chance, so she did not express the idea with a modal verb like would or might.

CJ
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CalifJimmight have had for the house cup.
Is this a probable reason? :
Griffindor had had some chance for the house cup before they lost points.
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eipjooIs this a probable reason? :Griffindor had had some chance for the house cup before they lost points.
Yes.

CJ
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