Why so much effort in one and not in the other?

Question

Hi,I asked many questions on this topic and I have this question this time.I think in order to turn an uncountable into a countable, the transformation or change has to be backed by somewhat clear context which is set by degrees or by types (can it be set by particular instances too?).Why is there so much detail in the first sentence in terms of showing that it meant as a type or beset by a particular degree and not so much detail in the second sentence? Sorry if my question is too vague or broad.1 (Yankee's sentence) I doubt that I'll experience a darkness as profound as the darkness of that night.2. This country pushed for a modernization of their equipment.

Tam Sadek · Accepted Answer

You're looking in the wrong place...

'Equipment' has not suddenly changed into a countable noun and is still an uncountable one...

'a modernization of' is the quantifier here in the same way as 'a glass of' water or 'a bottle of' oil 'turns' those uncountable nouns into 'countable' ones...

Hope that helps...

Tam Sadek · Answer

'Darkness' on the other hand is not exclusively an uncountable noun (contrary to popular belief), as a selection of the results from a British National Corpus search for 'a darkness' show below:

B1C 2033 And all you are like a darkness around it;

BN3 534 If ever a baby brought tremendous joy and fulfilment to a home, turned a darkness into light and a longing into glorious reality, that baby was Carl.

C8T 2232 She opened her eyes to the darkness, a darkness too often populated before sleep by those familiar, reproachful, childish faces, brown, black and white, bending over her, asking why she had deserted them when they loved her and thought that she had loved them.

CDC 720 For at the first time thou findest but a darkness and, as it were, a cloud of unknowing, thou knowest not what, save that thou feelest in thy will a naked intent unto ***.

CDV 1425 There something terrible has happened to them of which they will not speak: `;A darkness lies behind us… and we have turned our backs on it'; (p. 141).

CM1 564 Old longings, deeply buried in the Elf soul began to stir, and a darkness of spirit descended on their armies.

ED7 2063 Instead the orbs had sunk back and there was a darkness to the face, a suppressed despair, even an agitation that spoke of tedious things, so unlike those experiences we had laughed over in the past.

EDN 1852 Putting the light on would be too risky, but the curtains were drawn back and by now their eyes had become accustomed to a darkness in which could be made out the shapes of furniture and smaller objects, a darkness of monochrome and black spaces and faintly gleaming edges.

EDN 1852 Putting the light on would be too risky, but the curtains were drawn back and by now their eyes had become accustomed to a darkness in which could be made out the shapes of furniture and smaller objects, a darkness of monochrome and black spaces and faintly gleaming edges.

F99 1444 Then Adam's shadow vanished; light arrow Ed down on her; and she was climbing out through a trapdoor into a darkness that dazzled with this stabbing light.

However, 'darkness' as a countable noun is used more in literature as you can 'see' from these search results; and, as is the example that you originally gave (from Yankee) above...

Hope that helps...

Believer · Answer

Thank you.

The kind of phrase "a modernization" acting as a quantifier is something new to me and I want to explore some more. Can you kindly give me few examples?

Also, I believe Clive gave this sentence in his post and it is this:

He has a cruel kindness in his character

And I believe he said 'a' emphasizes the specificity and exceptionality of what we are focusing on.

A couple more examples to laid out my 'question' argument.

He has a knowledge in English.

He has a good knowledge in English

I don't the two above sentences are correct but my confusion is this.

Some sentences like the three italicized sentences above seem to have made the transformation from the uncountable to countable without exerting too much effort, whereas the one example that i cited (mentioned) as Yankee's seems to be going great extent to make it happen. Why?

To summarize what are in my head about the process of transformation from an uncountable noun to a countable noun (or the vice versa), this is what I will say.

As I think alluded by Aperic and the knowlegeable Mr. M, the designations regarding the countability in the dictionary are not absolute and the transformation can occur and do often occur a lot of times in the real world. Most uncountable nouns can become countable and the opposite can be true too.

But in order for it to happen, the reader(s) and the writer must agree that the transformation is valid and all others, including the reader(s) and writer(s), should accept it as such.

Why so much effort in one and not in the other?

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