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Paco2004 Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

Why put "to" in passive?

0 Hello 02br
02br
00I got a question from a learner in a Japanese site for English learning. It's a really simple question but I myself am puzzled at it. 02br
02br
00The question is:02br
00You say, "He made her sing". When you passivize it, you say "She was made to sing" not "She was made sing". The question is why you do not put "to" before "sing" in active voice but you put "to" in passive voice. 02br
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00The questioner wants an explanation more than "Because it is an English grammar rule and we native speakers say so".02br
02br
00paco 0-
  

Top answer

)02br 02br 01i 00Quirk, et al 02i 00merely comment that in this type of 01i 00Object + bare infinitive complementation02i 00, some of the very limited number of verbs grouped there (01i 00have, let, make, feel, hear, overhear, see, watch, notice, observe, help, know02i 00) permit the passive, some do not, and for others the passive is doubtful or limited acceptability-- and some require the infinitive marker01i 00 to02i 00 in the passive voice. 0-

  • )02br 02br 01i 00Quirk, et al 02i 00merely comment that in this type of 01i 00Object + bare infinitive complementation02i 00, some of the very limited number of verbs grouped there (01i 00have, let, make, feel, hear, overhear, see, watch, notice, observe, help, know02i 00) permit the passive, some do not, and for others the passive is doubtful or limited acceptability-- and some require the infinitive marker01i 00 to02i 00 in the passive voice.
  • 0-
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16 Answers
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0Hmm.02br
02br
00He made her sing -- She was made to sing.02br
00He heard her sing -- She was heard to sing.02br
00He helped her sing -- She was helped to sing.02br
00He saw her sing -- She was seen to sing.02br
00He let her sing -- She was let (to) sing (?)02br
00He had her sing -- She was had (to) sing (?)02br
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0I think in Middle English, the to-infinitive version is possible (e.g. "he made her to sing").02br
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00Wild guess: the passive version is a later structure, or perhaps simply less common, and thus more regular.02br
02br
00MrP0-
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Paco200412cite10Hello 12br
12br
10I got a question from a learner in a Japanese site for English learning. It's a really simple question but I myself am puzzled at it. 12br
12br
10The question is:12br
10You say, "He made her sing". When you passivize it, you say "She was made to
0
0 00In Middle English, and even early modern English02br
02br
00 00Shakespere certainly had "make" followed by the object and bare infinitive in 00Love's Labour's Lost: Act 4, Scene 300: O, 'tis the sun that maketh all things shine! published in 001598. However, the 00KJV (published 1611) has 00Psalms 23:2 He maketh me to lie down in green pastures
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0 Hello guys02br
02br
00Thank you for the replies. All of them are very helpful to me in thinking the problem. I think I had better explain the question more in detail.02br
02br
00Actually the questioner asked at first the semantic difference between "He made her sing" and "He told her to sing". So, at first I explained to the questioner like as follows:0
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0 Here's just one small data point to include in your cogitation on this subject.02br
02br
00 I don't personally, as a native speaker, sense anything different in meaning between02br
02br
00 He made her sing.02br
02br
00 and 02br
02br
00 She was made to sing.02br
02br
00 except that the agent
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0 Thank you, CJ. Your explanation is very interesting and kind of a surprise to me. 02br
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00I rather think, if you have "He made her to sing" as a D-structure in your minds, a considerable portion of your folks, maybe some kids would utter it as a S-structure. But actually very few people do so. For example, "Someone made him run" hits some 670 pages on UK domain, but no
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0 Sorry guys, you've lost me with your S and D structure terms. What exactly is an S or D structure?02br
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00The accusative idea seems feasable I'll understand better when I know what D and S are, though. Personally, I like to think of words like make, let, leave, help and the verbs of passive perception such as see, hear, etc as transitive modals when they are followed by
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0 S - surface02br
00 D - deep02br
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00 These are terms from transformational grammar, which has it that the 01u00surface structure02u00 of any sentence (the words we hear uttered in the particular order we hear them) is the result of transformations on a 01u00deep structure02u00. These are theoretical constructs.
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Paco200412cite10Do you think it is because English education is so excellent in UK?12br
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12blockquote
10I'm afraid there is no conceivable question to which the answer could be: "because English education is so excellent in the UK".02br
02br
00MrP0-

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