0
WangxinyiAriel Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
Why present perfect here when rewrite disjunct?
Hello! I'd like to ask a question that I came across when doing a disjunct rewriting exercise.
The original sentence is:
"Wisely,John sent the man away".
The answer shows it can be rewrite into 3 following forms:
1.It was wise that John sent the man away.
2.It was wise of John to have sent the man away.
3.John was wise to have sent the man away.
I'd like to ask that why there is"have"in both answer 2 and answer 3 but not in answer 1? Is it necessary for this sentence to be written in present perfect?
It's my very first time to ask a question on the forum. Thank you so much!!
The original sentence is:
"Wisely,John sent the man away".
The answer shows it can be rewrite into 3 following forms:
1.It was wise that John sent the man away.
2.It was wise of John to have sent the man away.
3.John was wise to have sent the man away.
I'd like to ask that why there is"have"in both answer 2 and answer 3 but not in answer 1? Is it necessary for this sentence to be written in present perfect?
It's my very first time to ask a question on the forum. Thank you so much!!
Top answer
WangxinyiAriel I'd like to ask that why there is"have"in both answer 2 and answer 3 but not in answer 1? Is it necessary for this sentence to be written in present perfect? It is not present perfect tense.
- WangxinyiAriel I'd like to ask that why there is"have"in both answer 2 and answer 3 but not in answer 1?
- Is it necessary for this sentence to be written in present perfect?
- It is not present perfect tense.
- It is the perfect infinitive .
- The perfect infinitive is a non-finite form.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
6 Answers
0
WangxinyiArielI'd like to ask that why there is"have"in both answer 2 and answer 3 but not in answer 1? Is it necessary for this sentence to be written in present perfect?It is not present perfect tense.
It is the perfect infinitive. The perfect infinitive is a non-finite form. It cast the infinitive to a past action relative to the main verb.
00
Welcome to the forum, WangxinyiAriel. Thank you for registering.
As AS said, the form is the perfect infinitive. We have no past infinitive as such. The perfect infinitive is used for any past time reference:
As AS said, the form is the perfect infinitive. We have no past infinitive as such. The perfect infinitive is used for any past time reference:
00
Thank you so much!
It's been a little bit clearer for me. But then comes another question: why answer1 wasn't in perfect inf
It's been a little bit clearer for me. But then comes another question: why answer1 wasn't in perfect inf00
Thank you so much! It's been a little bit clearer for me. But then comes another question: why answer1 wasn't in perfect inf
It's been a little bit clearer for me. But then comes another question: why answer1 wasn't in perfect inf00
1.It was wise that John sent the man away. (This sentence uses a full dependent clause. The verb "sent" is past tense.)
2.It was wise of John to have sent the man away. (This sentence uses a non-finite clause. The verb is not an inflected verb, but an infinitive.)
2.It was wise of John to have sent the man away. (This sentence uses a non-finite clause. The verb is not an inflected verb, but an infinitive.)
00
Related Questions