Hi, He's thinking that there is a covenant that exists between all dogs and all men. Clive
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Ant_222Hello all!
I was looking up a word in theFreeDictionary and stumbled across the following sentence from Jack London's "White Fang": «The months went by, binding stronger and stronger the covenant between dog and man.»
Why didn't he write "...between the dog...".
Thanks in advance,
Anton
EDIT: Could it be bacause
Jackson6612uppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.No, I was referring to the placement of "the" before both "dog" and "man"... I am not sure it would be correct to use "the" only before "dog".
Jack
Ant_222Jackson6612uppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.No, I was referring to the placement of "the" before both "dog" and "man"... I am not sure it would be correct to use "the" o
CalifJimIt's the covenant between dog-nature and man-nature. (between what-is-dog-essence and what-is-man-essence; between dog-ness and man-ness)I agree. We could also say that this is in a way a matter of "opposites" in that people are human, dogs are not. It is normal in English to drop articles with opposites:
Jackson6612I believe this is the feature of English grammar. What do you say?I told you I don't know. Can you find some relevant examples in Google?
CBWe could also say that this is in a way a matter of "opposites" in that people are human, dogs are not. It is normal in English to drop articles with oppositesAm I right tha