0
Ant_222 Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

Why no article here?

Hello all!

I was looking up a word in theFreeDictionary and stumbled across the following sentence from Jack London's "White Fang": «The months went by, binding stronger and stronger the covenant between dog and man.»

Why didn't he write "...between the dog...".

Thanks in advance,
Anton

EDIT: Could it be bacause "between dog and man" is descriptive (not restrictive)?
  

Top answer

Hi, He's thinking that there is a covenant that exists between all dogs and all men. Clive

  • Hi, He's thinking that there is a covenant that exists between all dogs and all men.
  • Clive
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

9 Answers
0
Hi,

He's thinking that there is a covenant that exists between all dogs and all men.

Clive
0
Thanks, that's interesting!
0
I think I would explain it a little differently. The reference is to abstractions, not to physical entities.

It's the covenant between dog-nature and man-nature. (between what-is-dog-essence and what-is-man-essence; between dog-ness and man-ness)
CJ
0
Thanks for another hint. But I am still thinking and can't fully get it (I thought I would with time...).

It's general dog-ness and general man-ness that London refers to by writing "man" and "dog" without an article. But isn't that very (wolf)dog's dog-ness and the man-ness of cerain men?

I hope I am right in thinking that London writes it that way to emphasize the covenant's
0
Ant_222Hello all!

I was looking up a word in theFreeDictionary and stumbled across the following sentence from Jack London's "White Fang": «The months went by, binding stronger and stronger the covenant between dog and man.»

Why didn't he write "...between the dog...".

Thanks in advance,
Anton

EDIT: Could it be bacause
0
Jackson6612uppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.
No, I was referring to the placement of "the" before both "dog" and "man"... I am not sure it would be correct to use "the" only before "dog".
Jack
0
Ant_222
Jackson6612uppose he wrote between the dog and man, then would it mean that the is associated with both dog and man, i.e ...the covenant between (the) dog and (the) man.
No, I was referring to the placement of "the" before both "dog" and "man"... I am not sure it would be correct to use "the" o
0
CalifJimIt's the covenant between dog-nature and man-nature. (between what-is-dog-essence and what-is-man-essence; between dog-ness and man-ness)

I agree. We could also say that this is in a way a matter of "opposites" in that people are human, dogs are not. It is normal in English to drop articles with opposites:
from morning till evening, f
0
Jackson6612I believe this is the feature of English grammar. What do you say?
I told you I don't know. Can you find some relevant examples in Google?
CBWe could also say that this is in a way a matter of "opposites" in that people are human, dogs are not. It is normal in English to drop articles with opposites
Am I right tha

Related Questions