Why is there a difference?

Question

Hi,I have a problem, I don´t understand which is the difference between these two sentences:"We had spoken about this topic but then you changed your mind""We have spoken about this topic but then you have changed your mind""We spoke about this topic but then you changed your mind"Please tell me if each sentence is correct and where is the difference between each otherI need also to know if I can add a "been" in the first two sentences. If yes, try to explain whyThanksPamela

Walidos · Accepted Answer

Hi,

Pamela in my opinion and from what i learnt in english :

in this sentence you should used The past perfect.

The past perfect expresses the plan or idea that something occured befor another action in the past .

so the correct sentence is first one. "We had spoken about this topic but then you have changed your mind".

so speak came first than he changed his mine : first action is speak , seconde action is change mind.

hope i did helped you pamela.

and you can not add been , because had been spoken is past perfect continious . wich is not the case in your sentence

We use the Past Perfect Continuous to show that something started in the past and continued up until another time in the past.

Dimsumexpress · Answer

Hi Pamela,

Pamela81
"We had spoken about this topic but then you changed your mind"
"We have spoken about this topic but then you have changed your mind"
"We spoke about this topic but then you changed your mind"

If I have to take a shot on the choice simply based on interpretation.

#1 is my answer because "the change of mind" happened after "we had spoken about the issue". Both past events took place in the past.

#2 is possible with the inpterpretation that you have discussed or spoken with someone about certain topic and he has changed his mind several times.

#3 is not wrong but I have yet found a context to make it fit. It would be acceptable in a conversation; I suppose....

Clive · Answer

Hi,

#3 is the normal version in both writinng and speaking.

The word 'then' makes the sequence of events clear. When the sequence is clear, the Past Perfect is not usually used.

Clive

Pamela81 · Answer

Dear all

thanks for your help but I am still not getting ...

What is the difference in the meaning among the 3 sentences??

Thanks

Pamela

Dimsumexpress · Answer

Pamela81but I am still not getting ...

I know it is frustrating, I had been there. If Imay say so, I think the difference may not be that easily explained because it lies in the speaker's frame of mind and the interpreation of the reader as they are all correct in certain degrees, depending on the contexts engaged. Maybe CJ can shed some light on this.

Pamela81 · Answer

Hi Clive ok, now it´s clear to me. Thanks.

Please check the following different sentences and confirm if I am right or not:

1. I have cheated my colleague for years. It means that I cheated my colleague and now I stopped cheating him

2. I have been cheating my colleague for years /since year 2000. It means that I am still cheating him.

3. I cheated my colleague in year 2000. It means that I stopped cheating him.

Sentence 1 and 3 : the meaning is the same, the only difference is that when i write "in year 2000¨" then I must use "cheated" instead of "have cheated" which is more generic and used when there s ni specification of time. ??? Please confirm

4. I had cheated my colleague before being dismissed (or having been??) (or I had been dismissed)??

Please help me with sentence 4

5. I had been cheating my collegue before being dismissed (or having been??) (or I had been dismissed)??

Difference between 4-5 is the in sentence 4 I stoppend cheating my collegue when I was dismissed and in sentence 5 I was still cheating my collegue when I was dismissed ?? Please confirm or not

Passive form:

1. I have been cheated by my colleague for years. Means that he is still cheating me or that he has already stopped cheating me???Can be both?

2. I was cheated by my colleague in year 2000. Means that now he stopped cheating me

Please try to confirm and/ or correct using my examples since I think I would understand it better

thank you so much!

Pamela

Clive · Answer

Hi,

Please check the following different sentences and confirm if I am right or not:

1. I have cheated my colleague for years. It means that I cheated my colleague and now I stopped cheating him

It's not 100% clear that you have stopped, but probably.

2. I have been cheating my colleague for years /since year 2000. It means that I am still cheating him. Yes

3. I cheated my colleague in year 2000. It means that I stopped cheating him. Yes

Sentence 1 and 3 : the meaning is the same, the only difference is that when i write "in year 2000¨" then I must use "cheated" instead of "have cheated" which is more generic and used when there s ni specification of time. ??? Please confirm

In #1, you have done it for a long period in the past, but we don't know when.

In #3, we know when.

4. I had cheated my colleague before being dismissed (or having been??) (or I had been dismissed)??

I had cheated my colleague before being dismissed.

I had cheated my colleague before I was dismissed.

But 'befere' makes the sequence of events clear, so usually just say

I cheated my colleague before I was dismissed.

Please help me with sentence 4

5. I had been cheating my collegue before being dismissed (or having been??) (or I had been dismissed)??

Difference between 4-5 is the in sentence 4 I stoppend cheating my collegue when I was dismissed Yes

and in sentence 5 I was still cheating my collegue when I was dismissed ?? Probably no. the Continuous just makes it sound like the cheating was over a long period of time.

Please confirm or not

Passive form:

1. I have been cheated by my colleague for years. Means that he is still cheating me or that he has already stopped cheating me???Can be both? Yes, not clear.

2. I was cheated by my colleague in year 2000. Means that now he stopped cheating me It doesn't tell us anything about now. It just tells us about 2000.

Please try to confirm and/ or correct using my examples since I think I would understand it better

Clive

Dimsumexpress · Answer

Pamela811. I have cheated my colleague for years. It means that I cheated my colleague and now I stopped cheating him

Hi,

The answer for #1 (to me) is a big NO)

Clive already answered your questions. I only have one comment on #1. I see no context that suggests the cheating stopped. On the contrary, with the of present perfect, it created a suggestive mood that the cheating started years ago and the cheating act is on going.

Consider: I have done business with him for years. He is honest and I have trust in him. If I used PP instead of past tense, I intentionally tried to suggest that the business partnership is still current. Otherwise, I would have used past tense to express my thought.

Just my 2 cents...

Pamela81 · Answer

Hi,

thanks Clive for the very clear answer . You helped very much but I will be needing you to explain why you prefer in sentence 4 the use of "before I was dismissed" over "being dismissed" and why "having been dismissed" is wrong-

Thanks Disumexpress for the suggestion but I agree more with Clive´s opinion n the case of sentence 1.

Regards

PAMELA

Dimsumexpress · Answer

Pamela81
Thanks Disumexpress for the suggestion but I agree more with Clive´s opinion n the case of sentence 1.

Very well. I merely pointed out the flaw of that sentence based on the present perfect approach.

Why is there a difference?

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