Why is the objective case use in this instance, what is this structure called?
So, while studying English, I have come across something that I do not entirely understand, or at least I cannot find a rule that allows me to understand it.
In the two sentences below, the pronoun "him" is in the objective case. I understand that it sounds better because it is the direct object, but how they does it make sense to have it in this case when it is also a "doer" within its own clause?
I saw him run to the end of the street
I saw him running to the end of the street
Top answer
anonymous how they does it make sense to have it in this case when it is also a "doer" within its own clause? The sentence consists of only one clause. There is no finite verb after him, so he is impossible.
- anonymous how they does it make sense to have it in this case when it is also a "doer" within its own clause?
- The sentence consists of only one clause.
- There is no finite verb after him, so he is impossible.
- CB
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anonymoushow they does it make sense to have it in this case when it is also a "doer" within its own clause?
The sentence consists of only one clause. There is no finite verb after him, so he is impossible.
CB
0I saw him run to the end of the street.
I saw him running to the end of the street.
The simple answer is that, "him" is not a syntactic constituent of the underlined subordinate clauses. Semantically, "saw" involves an experiencer and a stimulus. The stimulus is the event wherein he ran/was running to the end of the street, as seen in the subordinate cla
0
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