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Jackson6612 Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

''Why is that sentence not suitble to use?'' ''Why is that sentence...''

0What is the difference in meaning between the following sentences?02br
02br
01font01b00102b00: No one told me, why is that sentence not suitble 01b01font00to02font02b00 use?02font02br
02br
01font01b00202b00: No one told me, why is that sentence not suitble 01b01font00for02font02b00 use?02font0-
  

Top answer

0 01i 00No one told me. 02i 02br 02br 00 No difference in meaning. 02br 02br 01i 00No one told me.

— CalifJim

  • 0 01i 00No one told me.
  • 02i 02br 02br 00 No difference in meaning.
  • 02br 02br 01i 00No one told me.
  • 02i 02br 02br 00 CJ0-
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4 Answers
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0 01i00No one told me. Why is that sentence not suit01b00a02b00ble [to use / for use]?02i02br
02br
00 No difference in meaning. 01i00to use02i00 is the more usual way of expressing it.02br
02br
00 Note that the following sentences mean the same thing.02br
02br
01i0
0
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10Jackson661212cite10What is the difference in meaning between the following sentences?12br
12br
11font11b10112b10: No one told me, why is that sentence not suitble 11b11font10to12font12b10 use?12font
0
0
0Hi,02br
02br
00CalifJim and Yoong Liat, I'm thankful to both of you for helping me. Suggestions are still welcome.0-
0
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10Jackson661212cite10What is the difference in meaning between the following sentences?12br
12br
11font11b10112b10: 12font11font11b10212b10: No one told me, why is that sentence not suitble 11b11fon
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