Why not "... in which they had lately swum" ?
Now they were floating in the little green boat upon the perfectly calm sea in which they had lately been swimming.
"lately" is an indication of time so if we use Past Perfect Continuous here it's the 1st case. But, to me it seems like at the time of speaking there had passed too much time of swimming in the boat.
1) Past Perfect Continuous I serves to express an action which began before a given past moment and continued into it or up to it.
2) Past Perfect Continuous II serves to express an action which was in progress just before a given past moment and it affects the past situation in some way. The precise time limits of he action are not specified
Pavel Tarouts Why not "... in which they had lately swum "? That is also possible, but the -ing form expresses a more vivid description of the activity of swimming.
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Pavel TaroutsWhy not "... in which they had lately swum"?That is also possible, but the -ingform expresses a more vivid description of the activity of swimming. "had swum" collects all of the moments of swimming into one (less interesting) event.
Pavel Taroutstoo much time of swimming in t
CalifJimThat is also possible, but the -ingform expresses a more vivid description of the activity of swimming. "had swum" collects all of the moments of swimming into one (less interesting) event.Ok, more vivid description. But why is the Present Perfect Continuous used if the action had finished pretty much earlier than a moment ago? What are the conditions
Pavel TaroutsBut why is the Present Perfect Continuous used if the action had finished pretty much earlier than a moment ago?It's a legitimate use of that tense with "lately" even though it is not necessarily the most typical usage as described in textbooks.
Pavel TaroutsWhat are the conditions when it is acceptable?I don'