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Tamguatlay Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

Why is 'have' (plural) used when 'was' (singular) is used in the later part of the sentence?

About $2 billion in investments have been made in the infant nutrition sector over the past five years, according to the Economic Development Board. This is a nearly six-fold increase from the 2004 to 2008 period, when $350 million was invested in the sector.

Why is 'have' (plural) used when 'was' (singular) is used in the later part of the sentence?

Thanks.
  

Top answer

I would say it was an error if it were in writing. $2B is a sum and should use the singular. However, if the person was speaking, it's so easy to match the verb to the closest noun (investments).

— BarbaraPA

  • I would say it was an error if it were in writing.
  • $2B is a sum and should use the singular.
  • However, if the person was speaking, it's so easy to match the verb to the closest noun (investments).
  • Still not "right" but natural sounding.
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4 Answers
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I would say it was an error if it were in writing. $2B is a sum and should use the singular.
However, if the person was speaking, it's so easy to match the verb to the closest noun (investments). Still not "right" but natural sounding.
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tamguatlayWhy is 'have' (plural) used when 'was' (singular) is used in the later part of the sentence?
The only real crime is inconsistency, I think.
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Thanks, Barbara.

It was a report taken from a local newspaper.
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Thanks, MM.

I think the reporter was using the proximity rule when he used 'have'. This is a common mistake, where I live.
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