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Bepleased Posted 14 years ago
Vocabulary

Why I for one believe him = I believe him even if no one else dose?

Hello,

This sentence of an entry of "for" that is defined : "as being or as part of"

Why are they even with each other?

The whole sentence is :

He says so, and I for one believe him.

Does it mean: If there is one who believe him, I believe him as part of that one?

Could any one native speaker tell me correct or not?

Thank you for your help.
  

Top answer

I FOR ONE is an idiom. It does not literally mean what it says. " It contains an element of CHALLENGE and ASSERTIVENESS.

  • I FOR ONE is an idiom.
  • It does not literally mean what it says.
  • " It contains an element of CHALLENGE and ASSERTIVENESS.
  • The writer is saying something like: "I believe him.
  • This is my FIRM opinion.
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18 Answers
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I FOR ONE is an idiom. It does not literally mean what it says. I would write it with commas: "I, for one, believe him."
It contains an element of CHALLENGE and ASSERTIVENESS. The writer is saying something like: "I believe him. This is my FIRM opinion. It doesn't matter whether anyone else agrees with me. That's what I think."
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Hi,
As your suggestion, the "for one" means in spite of one person to believe him.
But the definition doesn't mean that .

The definition in the dictionary is "as being or as part of".

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bepleasedAs your suggestion, the "for one" means in spite of one person to believe him.But the definition doesn't mean that .The definition in the dictionary is "as being or as part of".
That's right. The explanation is simple. I even SPELLED IT OUT FOR YOU in that post.

"I FOR ONE" IS AN IDIOM. IT DOES NOT LITERALLY MEAN WHAT IT SAYS.

I don'
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Hi,

{There are friends and then there are friends.}

= (of my interpretation) Friends are born in there, irrespective of rich or poor, noble or low caste, and then friends exist in there forever.-----in that there, friends still exist
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Aother example is:
I don't want to but it; for one thing I don't like the color, and for another the price is too high.

Does the for mean "because"?
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The following is my naive idea.
philosophy of "-ed":
When the definition of adjectives which end in 'ed' are given "having or showing what", they show that the noun they describe have been in a finished condition of the verb they are formed from.

e.g. "learned professors"----"learned" shows that the noun they describe have been in a finished condition of the verb of "learn"
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bepleasedI don't want to but it; for one thing I don't like the color, and for another the price is too high. Does the for mean "because"?
Not specifically. FOR ONE THING means something like "here is one thing I can say about it, but it's not the only thing I can say".
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bepleased"learned professors"----"learned" shows that the noun they describe have been in a finished condition of the verb of "learn". "advanced study / course"-----"advanced" show that the noun of study / course has been in a finished condition of the verb of "advance".
Congratulations! That part of your post made sense to me, and I don't disagree with it.
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Many people, native speaker included, have no comment on determining their difference.

The first character of "-ed" can help us to find out the intrinsic difference between the following sentences.

(1) I oppose nuclear power generation.

(2) I am opposed to nuclear power generation.

That in the first sentence, we don't know whether the man has enough "will" to o
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Yes, one thing is not specifically.

Please tell me "for" means what!

According to the definition: for = as being or as part of ;
"as part of" that has me to understand the sentence in this way: I don't want to buy it that results from one thing ....

But "as being" can not make sense of it to me.

Thank you for your help.

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