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BoSsSy Posted 8 years ago
Grammar
Why don't we specify who will eat in "Is there anything to eat"?
Why don't we specify who will eat in
Is there anything to eat?
Isn't it more correct to say: Is there anything for me to eat? or Is there anything for eating?
Top answer
". We understand who will eat from context; usually, but not always, it would be the speaker. If necessary, you can make this explicit, as in "Is there anything for me/us/him/etc.
- ".
- We understand who will eat from context; usually, but not always, it would be the speaker.
- If necessary, you can make this explicit, as in "Is there anything for me/us/him/etc.
- ".
- " is not natural.
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1 Answers
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It is common to say "Is there anything to eat?". We understand who will eat from context; usually, but not always, it would be the speaker. If necessary, you can make this explicit, as in "Is there anything for me/us/him/etc. to eat?". "Is there anything for eating?" is not natural.
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