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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Why does gerund come after the object noun?

hi,,

I am confused about the sentence which is underlined. why the gerund verb (warning) can come after the object noun (messages) without a preposition. also i have seen some gerund followed by a gerund without a preposition. can anyone help me!

Confirmation that reservists have been deployed in Gaza came a day after Israel dropped leaflets and left phone messages warning Gazans to stay away from areas used by Hamas, saying that its operation would soon enter "phase three".

thank you very much

edward
  

Top answer

Anonymous Confirmation that reservists have been deployed in Gaza came a day after Israel dropped leaflets and left phone messages warn ing Gazans to stay away from areas used by Hamas, say ing that its operation would soon enter "phase three". warning is not a gerund, but a participle. The participial phrase acts as a modifier for messages .

  • Anonymous Confirmation that reservists have been deployed in Gaza came a day after Israel dropped leaflets and left phone messages warn ing Gazans to stay away from areas used by Hamas, say ing that its operation would soon enter "phase three".
  • warning is not a gerund, but a participle.
  • The participial phrase acts as a modifier for messages .
  • There is no requirement for a preposition to occur either with a participle or with a gerund, so I'm afraid I'm not following your reasoning.
  • Review the terms 'participle' and 'gerund'.
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1 Answers
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AnonymousConfirmation that reservists have been deployed in Gaza came a day after Israel dropped leaflets and left phone messages warning Gazans to stay away from areas used by Hamas, saying that its operation would soon enter "phase three".
warning

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