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Snsubbu Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Why do we use 'have?

Q1. He does not have anything to lose
Q2. He has nothing to lose

In both the sentences, the subject is 'He' - singular pronoun. My question is why do we use 'have' in Q1 when we have to use 'has' ?

samarpan
  

Top answer

Hi, I already answered this in your other thread. Clive

  • Hi, I already answered this in your other thread.
  • Clive
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3 Answers
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Hi,

I already answered this in your other thread.Emotion: smile

Clive
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He does not have anything to lose.
He has nothing to lose.

Note the s's above, then see .

CJ
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Thanks CJ and Clive Emotion: smile

PS: @CJ - i went through the link that you have posted. Thanks a ton

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