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Jay from earth Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

why divides not divide?

should it be "(to) divide" in this sentence ?
But when you strip away the sentimentality, what it really does is divides us.
  

Top answer

Both forms are possible. Some verbs, including "be" (is) can be followed by either a full or a bare infinitive.

— Teechr

  • Both forms are possible.
  • Some verbs, including "be" (is) can be followed by either a full or a bare infinitive.
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6 Answers
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Both forms are possible. Some verbs, including "be" (is) can be followed by either a full or a bare infinitive.
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Jay from earthwhat it really does is divides us.
This comes under the topic of "Pseudo-clefts with do".

If the form of do in the fused relative construction is doing, the verb that echoes it later has "ing".

What it is really doing is dividing us.

In all other cases, the echoing verb is the p
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but,the bare infinitive form is divide, why divides here? I meant either "...is to divide" or "...divide" in this sentence.
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Jay from earthbut,the bare infinitive form is divide, why divides here? I meant either "...is to divide" or "...divide" in this sentence.
I thought you would be able to extrapolate from what I gave you. Let me repeat:

Some speakers echo the exact form of do, but that is not what the grammar books advise.

Your original was ...
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I learnt that except doing form, for all other cases, the echoing verb should be the plain verb,yes, from some grammar books. I can not find it should echo the exact form of do. this piece is from TED, I really cannot believe the error occurred from TED official website. thank you so much
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Jay from earthI really cannot believe the error occurred from TED official website.
You are free to believe whatever source you wish to believe.
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