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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Why a plural verb for "1/2 of the peopel are gone"?

I am curious, why is "1/2 of the people are gone" take a plural verb?

Isn't the subject 1/2? Isnt that refer to a single one of two equal parts?

SO how does that work, I am just confused and am hoping someone can please clarify this for me. I am not an english major by any means, so simplier the better.

Thanks in advance for all you help
  

Top answer

htm The singular/plural nature of percentages or fractions depends on the context: Singular: Half of the apple was eaten. (There is only one apple, so it would be singular) Half of the crowd is looking at the clown. Half of the class is absent.

— AlpheccaStars

  • htm The singular/plural nature of percentages or fractions depends on the context: Singular: Half of the apple was eaten.
  • (There is only one apple, so it would be singular) Half of the crowd is looking at the clown.
  • Half of the class is absent.
  • Half of the money was spent on rent.
  • Plural: Half of the club members are present, so we have a quorum.
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2 Answers
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See point #11 here:

http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/sv_agr.htm

The singular/plural nature of percentages or fractions depends on the context:

Singular:

Half of the apple was eaten. (There is only o
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Anonymous... why --is-- does "1/2 of the people are gone" take a plural verb?
Make the agreement with the noun in the of-phrase when dealing with fractions or percentages.

Half of the milk is gone.

Half of the people are gone.

Twenty percent of the population
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