0Hello. I came across with the following sentence, and would like to ask a question regarding it: It's a brave new world for people whose job 01b00it is02b00 to sell you things. 02br 02br 00Why is there "it" before "is" (ie. why didn't the author write "...whose job 01b00is02b00 to sell you things.")?02br 02br 00Most of the times, I don't see "it" preceding "is" in a situation like this, but every once in a while, I 01i00do02i00 see "it" preceding "is", as in the sentence of interest. 02br 02br 00Is there any difference between "job is to ....." and "job it is to......", or are they essentially the same thing? 02br 02br 00Could someone please explain? I'm very curious about this. Thank you so much, as always, in advance. 0-
Top answer
02br 02br 00 1a. It's a brave new world for these people:02br 02br 00 1b. It is the job of these people to sell you things.
— CalifJim
02br 02br 00 1a.
It's a brave new world for these people:02br 02br 00 1b.
It is the job of these people to sell you things.
)02br 02br 00 1a + 1b.
02br 01i 00_________02i 02br 02br 00 2a.
Free · every Monday
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
0 Both are possible.02br 02br 00 1a. It's a brave new world for these people:02br 02br 00 1b. It is the job of these people to sell you things. (< To sell you things is the job of these people.)02br 02br 00 1a + 1b. It's a brave new world for people whose job it is to sell you things.02br 01i00_________02