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Which is correct:1-You can't be impolite to someone whose surgeon is John.2-You can't be impolite to someone whose surgeon is me.3-You can't be impolite to someone of whom John is the surgeon.4-You can't be impolite to someone of whom I am the surgeon.

Avangi · Accepted Answer

Anonymous
Which is correct:

1-You can't be impolite to someone whose surgeon is John.

2-You can't be impolite to someone whose surgeon is me.

3-You can't be impolite to someone of whom John is the surgeon.

4-You can't be impolite to someone of whom I am the surgeon.

2-, 3-, and 4- are incorrect. 1- is awkward.

"Can't be impolite" is sometimes used to mean "shouldn't be impolite," but more often means, "It's impossible to be impolite."

Number two requires the subjective pronoun, but who's going to say, " . . . whose surgeon is I" ?

I can't explain why the possessive "whose surgeon" cannot be rendered "of whom the surgeon," but we typically say, "for whom the surgeon . . . "

Probably number three would be the best, if you reworked it: You shouldn't be impolite to someone for whom John is the surgeon.

It might be more natural to say, "You shouldn't be impolite to someone if John is his/her surgeon."

BarbaraPA · Answer

Aside from grammar, the logic is a bit odd. John is such an amazing surgeon that the very fact that someone is his patient makes him special too?

For 2 and 4, just say "Don't be rude to my patients!"

CalifJim · Answer

1 - You can't be impolite to someone whose surgeon John is.
2 - You can't be impolite to someone whose surgeon I am.

3 and 4, though technically correct, are far too contorted to be of any practical use. 1 and 2 already tend in that direction.

CJ

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