I feel that in the following sentence, it should be "whom" instead of "who" because, I reason that, "Spencer" is the object of "developed", hence its referent must be objective, too. Am I right?
She developed strong feelings for Spencer, who/whom she might have married save for the fact that he found her too 'morbidly intellectual'.
Thank you for your help.
Hi 'Whom' is right there (as the object of the phrase), strictly speaking or writing However, it's one of those things (who/whom) that is being lost in English. Nowadays, few people would notice the difference. It depends on to who you're speaking!
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Hi
'Whom' is right there (as the object of the phrase), strictly speaking or writing
However, it's one of those things (who/whom) that is being lost in English. Nowadays, few people would notice the difference. It depends on to who you're speaking!
Dave
SelvakumarI reason that, "Spencer" is the object of "developed", hence its referent must be objective, too. Am I right?
No, the reasoning is wrong. Just because the antecedent (Spencer) is in the object case in the main clause does not mean that the relative pronoun that references it must also be in the object case. Thus:
1. She developed
SelvakumarI feel that in the following sentence, it should be "whom" instead of "who" because, I reason that, "Spencer" is the object of "developed", hence its referent must be objective, too. Am I right?
In formal English "whom" is correct. However, this is not because "Spencer" is the object of "developed" (which isn't true anyway), but because "Spencer"