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MrPedantic Posted 21 years ago
Linguistics Studies

Whom was given the book?

This is a spin-off from:

The difference between 'who' and 'whom'

where (among other things) the sentence

1. '*Whom was given the book?'

was discussed.

I understand that in AmE, this sentence is acceptable:

2. Whom did you give the book?

If 'whom' is acceptable in #2 for 'to whom', is 'whom' acceptable in #1 for 'to whom'? If so, is #1 acceptable as an inversion, with 'book' as subject?

3. 'Whom (IO) was given the book (S)?

i.e. 'the book was given to whom?'

Just curious.

MrP
  

Top answer

*Whom was given the book? The syntactical subject of passives usually take the direct object, which is in an accusative case, changes it into the nominative case. In the sentence, " the book" is not the subject but the direct object.

  • *Whom was given the book?
  • The syntactical subject of passives usually take the direct object, which is in an accusative case, changes it into the nominative case.
  • In the sentence, " the book" is not the subject but the direct object.
  • The construction doesn't have an overt subject (null subject).
  • The active construction reads: 1.
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38 Answers
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*Whom was given the book?


The syntactical subject of passives usually take the direct object, which is in an accusative case, changes it into the nominative case. In the sentence, " the book" is not the subject but the direct object. The construction doesn't have an overt subject (null subject). The active construction reads:

1. (null)-subj gave-V [the
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Hello eq

Thanks for that – I'm actually looking at a slightly different question here.

In another thread, it was pointed out to me by an AmE native speaker that 'Whom did you give the book?' was an acceptable AmE form.

This intrigued me, as in BrE, you would say 'To whom did you give the book', or 'Who did you give the book to?', but not the sentence above.
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Dear Mr. P,

I speak American English and even I say "to whom did you give the book" or "who did you give the book to"
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Maybe my leg was being pulled, Julielai.

It does happen.

What a pity.

MrP
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In another thread, it was pointed out to me by an AmE native speaker that 'Whom did you give the book?' was an acceptable AmE form.


ME, Mr. P. I said it!
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Thanks, CJ! How about in the sentence in the subject box? Can you hear that with 'whom' as dative and 'book' as subject?

(I'm just curious as to whether 'dative whom' is strong enough to carry inversion.)

MrP
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Whew! I can hear it that way if I try hard, but I like the surface subject of a passive sentence to be as much a nominative as the surface subject of an active one.

Accusative: *Whom was invited? Dative: *Whom was given the book?

And also: *To whom was given the book? But "To whom was the book given" seems OK.

The one I should probably find acceptable -- "*Who
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Thanks for that, CJ!

I can only hear 'book/subject' if I keep repeating it to myself. After a while, it all starts to sound vaguely Anglo-Saxon.

MrP
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Mr P:

If 'whom' is acceptable in #2 for 'to whom', is 'whom' acceptable in #1 for 'to whom'? If so, is #1 acceptable as an inversion


As an inverted, incorporated indirect object, it sounds odd (to me):

Indirect Object
Replacement: You gave the book to whom?
Incorporation: You gave whom the book?
WH-Movement:
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Thank you, Casi!

It seems then that the 'dativity' of 'whom' can be reinforced by position (e.g. 'You gave whom the book?'), but isn't quite strong enough to carry off full inversion.

In the sentence 'Whom was given the book?', I find mild panic sets in at 'given': that's when you know something isn't as it should be.

MrP

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