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Avid learner Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Whom vs of whom

Hi,

1.For those who’re in the harem of Babylon, she is a paramour whom they cannot be without.
2.For those who’re in the harem of Babylon, she is a paramour of whom they cannot be without.

Which one is the correct one?

Please help me, A.L.
  

Top answer

The first sentence is correct. The noun ( paramour ) corresponds with the preposition without , not of , so you could also write … she is a paramour without whom they cannot be. (This sounds really old-fashioned.

— RandomGuy

  • The first sentence is correct.
  • The noun ( paramour ) corresponds with the preposition without , not of , so you could also write … she is a paramour without whom they cannot be.
  • (This sounds really old-fashioned.
  • I would use without at the end .
  • ) Here are a couple of examples where of which is possible.
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3 Answers
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The first sentence is correct.

The noun (paramour) corresponds with the preposition without, not of, so you could also write

… she is a paramour without whom they cannot be. (This sounds really old-fashioned. I would use without at the end.)

Here are a couple
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Aspara GusThis is the car of which I have always dreamed.
Can I use this form: "This is the car which I have always dreamed."
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avid learnerCan I use this form: "This is the car which I have always dreamed."
With of, yes.

Dream can be used with an object, but I don't think it's appropriate in this case. You have not always dreamed the car; you dreamed of it, as in fantasized or longed for.
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