Who is the writer's intended antecedent?
John 1:1-3 TPT
In the very beginning the Living Expression was already there. And the Living Expression was with God, yet fully God. They were together—face-to-face, in the very beginning. And through his creative inspiration this Living Expression made all things, for nothing has existence apart from him!
I really wanna believe that this HIS is a cataphoric pronoun, refering to Jesus. But then again, why isn't there a comma after creative inspiration.
It should read like.
And through his creative inspiration, this Living Expression made all things.
Top answer
readyfortherain I really wanna believe that this HIS is a cataphoric pronoun, refering to Jesus. There is no mention of "Jesus" in the text. In the very beginning the Living Expression was already there.
- readyfortherain I really wanna believe that this HIS is a cataphoric pronoun, refering to Jesus.
- There is no mention of "Jesus" in the text.
- In the very beginning the Living Expression was already there.
- And the Living Expression was with *** , yet fully ***.
- They were together—face-to-face, in the very beginning.
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readyfortherainI really wanna believe that this HIS is a cataphoric pronoun, refering to Jesus.
There is no mention of "Jesus" in the text.
In the very beginning the Living Expression was already there. And the Living Expression was with ***, yet fully ***. They were together—face-to-face, in the very beginning. And through
0"TPT" stands for "The Passion Translation", a bogus modernized version of the Bible. Don't look for poetry, accuracy, meaning or proper English in it. Look it up. The bit you are quoting is hilarious. The writer imagines he understands what John wrote and made it better. Nobody understands what John wrote, but other versions are at least in beautiful language.
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