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Notalentgeek Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

Which verb(s) should use verb 2 in this kind of sentence (see below)

I always confuse what to do when there are two verbs (modal, auxiliary) in a past tense. So which one is correct here:

He could ate yesterday.
He could eat yesterday.
He can ate yesterday.

The sentence supposed to mean that the subject (he) had a possibility to eat something yesterday.
  

Top answer

Hello, notalentgeek—and welcome to English Forums. Thank you for registering as a member. notalentgeek which one is correct here: He could eat yesterday .

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  • Hello, notalentgeek—and welcome to English Forums.
  • Thank you for registering as a member.
  • notalentgeek which one is correct here: He could eat yesterday .
  • The modal verb changes, but the main verb remains in the 'dictionary' or 'base' or 'infinitive' form.
  • I can eat now.
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2 Answers
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Hello, notalentgeek—and welcome to English Forums. Thank you for registering as a member.
notalentgeekwhich one is correct here:
He could eat yesterday.

The modal verb changes, but the main verb remains in the 'dictionary' or 'base' or 'infinitive' form.

I can eat now.
I could eat yesterday.
I will be able
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