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Anonymous Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

Which one is correct - "have been decided" or "are decided" ??

Hi guys.
Sorry to bother.. But need some one's help in understanding why choice 1 is wrong and 2 is correct.. Thanks in advance..

Because the Supreme Court has ruled that the prosecution in a job discrimination case must prove not only that the employer lied about the reasons for dismissal but also that those reasons were discriminatory, plaintiffs in such cases fear that they will have no higher court that they can appeal to when their cases are decided in lower courts.

1. that they can appeal to when their cases are : according to GMAT test material, this choice is wrong.

2. to which to appeal after their cases have been: According to GMAT test material this choice is correct.

Can any one please explain - why we need "have been " here ?? Why "their are decided" is wrong ?
  

Top answer

I have spotted only one slight grammatical mistake: "when their cases have been settled in lower courts" Present perfect is needed there in passive mode rather than simple present, so as to make the time sequence clear.

  • I have spotted only one slight grammatical mistake: "when their cases have been settled in lower courts" Present perfect is needed there in passive mode rather than simple present, so as to make the time sequence clear.
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4 Answers
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I have spotted only one slight grammatical mistake: "when their cases have been settled in lower courts"
Present perfect is needed there in passive mode rather than simple present, so as to make the time sequence clear.
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Which one is correct ? May be this will help me understand..

1. I will have to leave country after my visa has been rejected.- I don't see anything wrong with this..

2. I will have to leave country after my visa gets rejected. - I don't see anyhting wrong with this either..

3. I will have to leave country after my visa is rejected. - I don't see anything wrong with ei
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The 4th one is wrong, the others are correct. And use definite article before 'country'.
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Hi guys,

I see both versions as correct. It seems to me that what is at issue is a matter of style rather than grammar.

Best wishes, Clive

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