Which of the two sentences given below is correct, please

Hi everyone
A.S could you tell me why 'in the mood to' is right and the sentences mentioned by the o.p wrong?
Thanks.

OK ma'am, and thank you! But could you please tell me when the structure 'to be in the mood' needs to be followed by an 'of + an ing form' phrase? I'm asking this, because I've seen sentences in which to be in the mood (or to not be in the mood) is followed by 'of + an ing form'. For example, is it wrong to say/write They aren't in the mood of talking to you? Or

LaboriousFor example, is it wrong to say/write They aren't in the mood of talking to you?

Yes, it’s wrong. The noun mood in this sense takes as complement either a to-infinitival or a PP with for + NP (not in the mood for pizza).

LaboriousWhich of the following is correct, please? - They didn't seem to be in the mood of going there. - They didn't seem to be in the mood for going there.

The second one.

'in the mood of' is used differently:

A drop in the mood of consumers added to the day's bad news.
Such a reversal in the mood of the people is almost unh

CalifJimThe second one.

OK, fine, it’s grammatical, but in the great majority of cases, including this one, a to-infinitival is much more idiomatic.

Aspara Gusa to-infinitival is much more idiomatic.

Agree. But it takes little time to find a slew of examples with "for -ing" (fraze.it):

Maddie is not in the mood for celebrating Christmas. (en.wikipedia.org)
Not in the mood for skiing? (usatoday.com)
... it's a more relaxing companion when you're not in the mood for pressing on. (express.c

Yes, but COCA has 288 hits for in the mood to and only 15 for in the mood for [·ing form]. Google Books: 15,492-501. That’s why I said “in the majority of cases”. Whereas an infinitival is always idiomatic, for + gerund-participial often isn't. So if learners never use the latter, they’ll have no problems. (This doesn’t apply to gerundial nouns such as skiing,

Aspara GusYes, but COCA has 288 hits for in the mood to and only 15 for in the mood for [·ing form]. Google Books: 15,492-501. That’s why I said “in the majority of cases”.

I'm not surprised by those stats. That's why I said "Agree".

CalifJimI'm not surprised by those stats. That's why I said "Agree".

You omitted the rest of my sentence from the quote and followed with counterexamples, so I assumed you were agreeing with me only on the OP’s sentence.

CalifJimDo you happen to have a few examples of unidiomatic "mood for + -ing" cases? I couldn't think of one