I greatly doubt that Aristotle ever tested by experiment whether it be true that two stones, one weighing ten times as much as the other, if allowed to fall, at the same instant, from a height of, say, 100 cubits, would so differ in speed that when the heavier had reached the ground, the other would not have fallen more than 10 cubits.
Why is " be " used in the sentnece??
Thanks for your teaching.
Terry
Top answer
It's a subjunctive form. This particular use of the subjunctive is formal and literary, and tends to sound old-fashioned to modern ears.
— Mr Wordy
It's a subjunctive form.
This particular use of the subjunctive is formal and literary, and tends to sound old-fashioned to modern ears.
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