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Komountain Posted 22 years ago
Grammar
Where is the logic?
According to a tradtional grammar rule, when the referents are 'everyone/no one/someone/anyone/everybody/somebody/...,' the pronouns refering to them should be 'him' in the accusative case or, to avoid gender partiality, 'him or her' rather than 'them.'
Well, let's say the rule sounds okay. However, one grammar book says that, in tag questions, when the above referents are the subjects, we are supposed to add 'are they?' or 'aren't they?' in case the verb is 'to be.'
My question is: Where is the logic?
Well, let's say the rule sounds okay. However, one grammar book says that, in tag questions, when the above referents are the subjects, we are supposed to add 'are they?' or 'aren't they?' in case the verb is 'to be.'
My question is: Where is the logic?
Top answer
Which grammar book?? I'll have the editors on the carpet for this! Seriously-- the logic is the logic of convenience, Mr.
- Which grammar book??
- I'll have the editors on the carpet for this!
- Seriously-- the logic is the logic of convenience, Mr.
- Komountain; it's English.
- This use of 'they' has long been employed, at least informally, to avoid the 'him/her' awkwardness of nonspecific referrents.
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1 Answers
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Which grammar book?? I'll have the editors on the carpet for this!
Seriously-- the logic is the logic of convenience, Mr. Komountain; it's English. This use of 'they' has long been employed, at least informally, to avoid the 'him/her' awkwardness of nonspecific referrents. 'Their' is similarly filling the gap in genitive positions: 'Is everyone wearing their class ring(s)?'; 'somebo
Seriously-- the logic is the logic of convenience, Mr. Komountain; it's English. This use of 'they' has long been employed, at least informally, to avoid the 'him/her' awkwardness of nonspecific referrents. 'Their' is similarly filling the gap in genitive positions: 'Is everyone wearing their class ring(s)?'; 'somebo
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