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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Where did the DO NOT come from?
Certainly in other languages like my native Swedish, a negative is expressed with the verb followed by not.
Jag prata inte Svenska = I speak not Swedish = I do not speak Swedish
In English, however, a negative is expressed in a very odd way.
I do not speak Swedish.
The DO NOT seems to me, to be a double negative, and should cancel itself out to leave - I speak Swedish!
In older styles of English, certainly language around the time of Shakespeare, it was common to write: I speak not. I speak no. = I do not speak.
How did the verb in bold evolve to the I do not speak construction we use today?
Jag prata inte Svenska = I speak not Swedish = I do not speak Swedish
In English, however, a negative is expressed in a very odd way.
I do not speak Swedish.
The DO NOT seems to me, to be a double negative, and should cancel itself out to leave - I speak Swedish!
In older styles of English, certainly language around the time of Shakespeare, it was common to write: I speak not. I speak no. = I do not speak.
How did the verb in bold evolve to the I do not speak construction we use today?
Top answer
The DO NOT seems to me, to be a double negative, and should cancel itself out to leave - I speak Swedish! I don't see how you think there is a double negative there. In standard English all negative forms except primary BE and, for a small number of speakers, primary HAVE, have an auxiliary verb (or more than one) and not.
- The DO NOT seems to me, to be a double negative, and should cancel itself out to leave - I speak Swedish!
- I don't see how you think there is a double negative there.
- In standard English all negative forms except primary BE and, for a small number of speakers, primary HAVE, have an auxiliary verb (or more than one) and not.
- I do not work I did not work I have not worked I was not working I will not work I must not work.
- I will not have been working.
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5 Answers
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AnonymousI do not speak Swedish.The DO NOT seems to me, to be a double negative, and should cancel itself out to leave - I speak Swedish!I don't see how you think there is a double negative there.
In standard English all negative forms except primary BE and, for a small number of speakers, primary HAVE, have an auxiliary verb (or more than one) and
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I can';t answer the historical question you're asking, but I don't know why you feel that "I do not. . . " is a double negative. There's nothing negative about "do."
I speak Swedish -- neutral affirmative
I do speak Swedish -- emphatic affirmative
I do not speak Swedish -- negative
I speak Swedish -- neutral affirmative
I do speak Swedish -- emphatic affirmative
I do not speak Swedish -- negative
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I can't really add anything important to what has already been said. As far as I know, no one knows why do began to be used in questions and negations in the late Middle English period. Shakespeare (1564-1616) used both ways:
I know not him.
I do not know him.
The usage became settled in the 1600s. By the way, are you sure your native language is
I know not him.
I do not know him.
The usage became settled in the 1600s. By the way, are you sure your native language is
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Hey Thanks! No I lied. I always do say that my native language is another language as a means to cover my back should I make any mistakes in my English!
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