When using I've been and I have been

Question

Hi all,Can anyone help me understand why in books, writers use the short form ''I've been'' and sometimes I have been.the same with : I'd and I would....is there any difference or it's exactly the same thing?thanks

Englishmaven · Accepted Answer

Contractions are more conversational. Generally in formal writing, contractions are avoided.

Englishmaven · Answer

The meanings are the same.

Sam1947 · Answer

The meanings are exactly the same, as Maven said, since I'd is a contraction for I would (or I had), and I've is a contraction for I have.

The contractions are used in casual speech, or in writing when on wants to convey an informal tone. The uncontracted versions are used in formal writing or less casual types of writing, such as a business letter, memo to one's boss, etc.

Also, if one wants to emphasize the "would" or have", one would use the uncontracted form, e.g.,

I was determined that I would do it, even if the whole world thought I couldn't.

A child, after being questioned in a doubting way by his parent, might say, emphatically, "I have done my homework!" In these cases, even in casual spoken or written speech, one would use the uncontracted form for the emphasis.

Butterfly60 · Answer

Thank you.

The difference is clear now.

By the way, and as mentionned by Sam, I would not that to emphasis a past verb we use the auxiliary Do. exemple: I did manage. we could say simply without emphasis: '' I managed''.

Is it correct?

Mister Micawber · Answer

...example: I did manage. we could say simply without emphasis: I managed.-- Yes, that is right.

Butterfly60 · Answer

Many thanks.

When using I've been and I have been

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