When can you omit “to” after go

Question

I Had a student ask why there is no “to” in the following sentences “ She should go see her friend.”

She then gave another example, “I will go get some bread.” She was wondering why we didn’t say “She should go to see her friend.” or “I will go to get some bread.”.

Could someone explain the grammar behind this pattern? For me it seems awkward adding “to” but I can’t explain why it is awkward or incorrect… If it is indeed incorrect.

Thanks kindly,

David

Anonymous · Accepted Answer

DC FosterI Had a student ask why there is no “to” in the following sentences “ She should go see her friend.”

Primitive words like "go" have been around so long they make their own rules. The OED devotes 163 pages to the verb "go", and this use is covered in definition 30, "To move, travel, or proceed (to somewhere) so as to perform a specified action, or for the purpose of a specified or implied activity." They show citations back to Old English with no "to" and mention that there originally was no "to" with the second verb. They call the modern use, such as your "go get some bread" "Now colloquial (chiefly North American) (nonstandard in British English)". They also tellingly mention that the form does not occur in third person singular. There is no "He goes get some bread." The "to" reappears in "He goes to get some bread."

CalifJim · Answer

When can you omit “to” after go

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