Hello,
I have a question: why can the "to" of the verb in the first sentence be omitted but not in the second sentence? When can it be and not be omitted?
1) All I have to do is (to) leave. --> Here both versions (with and without "to") of the sentence are sound and correct.
2) I have no choice but to leave. --> But here "to" cannot be omitted.
Is there a way to know when it is necessary and when not?
Thank you very much.
Regards.
Presumably you read about this topic in an article somewhere, perhaps in a book or on the 'Net. Did the article not explain about to infinitivals, and when 'bare' infinitivals are permitted?
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Presumably you read about this topic in an article somewhere, perhaps in a book or on the 'Net.
Did the article not explain about to infinitivals, and when 'bare' infinitivals are permitted?
Eren8hisfatherAll I have to do is (to) leave.
When echoing a form of do, 'to' is optional.
This is typical in this kind of equative sentence (X = Y), in other words, a sentence with a linking verb, typically 'is', 'was', 'are', or 'were'.
Eren8hisfatherI have n