0
Overthinker Posted 4 years ago
Grammar

When can "to" in a verb be omitted?

Hello,

I have a question: why can the "to" of the verb in the first sentence be omitted but not in the second sentence? When can it be and not be omitted?


1) All I have to do is (to) leave. --> Here both versions (with and without "to") of the sentence are sound and correct.

2) I have no choice but to leave. --> But here "to" cannot be omitted.


Is there a way to know when it is necessary and when not?


Thank you very much.

Regards.

  

Top answer

Presumably you read about this topic in an article somewhere, perhaps in a book or on the 'Net. Did the article not explain about to infinitivals, and when 'bare' infinitivals are permitted?

  • Presumably you read about this topic in an article somewhere, perhaps in a book or on the 'Net.
  • Did the article not explain about to infinitivals, and when 'bare' infinitivals are permitted?
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

2 Answers
0

Presumably you read about this topic in an article somewhere, perhaps in a book or on the 'Net.


Did the article not explain about to infinitivals, and when 'bare' infinitivals are permitted?

0
Eren8hisfatherAll I have to do is (to) leave.

When echoing a form of do, 'to' is optional.

This is typical in this kind of equative sentence (X = Y), in other words, a sentence with a linking verb, typically 'is', 'was', 'are', or 'were'.

Eren8hisfatherI have n

Related Questions