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Believer Posted 18 years ago
Grammar
when and after
0 Hi, 02 br
02 br
00 It might take long to ask this question but I will try to shorten it. You have the conjunction 'when' and when you use it as a subordinate clause, I think you can use it elliptically like this: 02 br
02 br
00 He should not grunt when playing tennis 02 br
02 br
00 Here, I think a full, expanded version of 'when playing tennis' is 'when he is playing tennis'. So, my contention is that the part 'he is' is optionally and the clause would still be good. But, if I have to use this word 'after' (or 'before' as the case might be) in a sentence as a subordinate clause, I don't know if I can write elliptically as 'when' and still have a good subordinate clause. I think 'after' is both a conjunction and a preposition. 02 br
02 br
00 He should not play another sport after playing tennis. 02 br
02 br
00 Here, 01 b 00 am I looking at the role of a preposition or a conjunction? 02 b 00 I think 'playing tennis' as a gerund should be O.K. as a noun, then am I seeing the preposition 'after' here or a conjunction with a possibly permissible ellipted construction like the 'when' example above? I am not sure this is acceptable but for the sake of making my question more clear, I think the full version of a conjunctive use of 'after' in this case might be 'after 01 u 00 he has done finishing 02 u 00 playing tennis' (with the undelined part ellipted if that is possible). 0-
02 br
00 It might take long to ask this question but I will try to shorten it. You have the conjunction 'when' and when you use it as a subordinate clause, I think you can use it elliptically like this: 02 br
02 br
00 He should not grunt when playing tennis 02 br
02 br
00 Here, I think a full, expanded version of 'when playing tennis' is 'when he is playing tennis'. So, my contention is that the part 'he is' is optionally and the clause would still be good. But, if I have to use this word 'after' (or 'before' as the case might be) in a sentence as a subordinate clause, I don't know if I can write elliptically as 'when' and still have a good subordinate clause. I think 'after' is both a conjunction and a preposition. 02 br
02 br
00 He should not play another sport after playing tennis. 02 br
02 br
00 Here, 01 b 00 am I looking at the role of a preposition or a conjunction? 02 b 00 I think 'playing tennis' as a gerund should be O.K. as a noun, then am I seeing the preposition 'after' here or a conjunction with a possibly permissible ellipted construction like the 'when' example above? I am not sure this is acceptable but for the sake of making my question more clear, I think the full version of a conjunctive use of 'after' in this case might be 'after 01 u 00 he has done finishing 02 u 00 playing tennis' (with the undelined part ellipted if that is possible). 0-
Top answer
) are all (always) prepositions. However, his is not a traditional approach. 02 br 00 So you see there are a variety of theoretical approaches to the problem.
- ) are all (always) prepositions.
- However, his is not a traditional approach.
- 02 br 00 So you see there are a variety of theoretical approaches to the problem.
- 02 br 00 However, 01 i 01 u 00 He 02 u 00 played badminton before 01 u 00 he 02 u 00 01 u 00 played 02 u 00 tennis 02 i 00 can be expressed as 01 i 00 He played badminton before playing tennis 02 i 00 .
- 02 br 00 And note, 01 i 00 He plays badminton before he 01 u 00 plays 02 u 00 tennis 02 i 00 can also be expressed as 01 i 00 He plays badminton before playing tennis 02 i 00 .
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1 Answers
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0 Radford ( 01 i 00 Transformational Grammar 02 i 00 ) argues that these ( 01 i 00 when, while, after, before, since, until 02 i 00 , ...) are all (always) prepositions. However, his is not a traditional approach. He even denies that there is any necessity of having a category for conjunctions! 02 br
00 So you see there are a variety of theoretical appr
00 So you see there are a variety of theoretical appr
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