When a plural noun is followed by "with" to describe that the plural noun possesses something, does a noun after "with" need to be plural too?
When a plural noun is followed by "with" to describe that the plural noun possesses something, does a noun after "with" need to be plural too? For example, do you say "people with apples" instead of "people with an apple"? Do you say "people with apples" even when each of the people has one apple?
Top answer
They would be "people with apples" because there is more than one apple. If there were ten people and one apple, then it would be "people with an apple". If you wanted to emphasize that each person has one apple, you could say "people with an apple apiece".
- They would be "people with apples" because there is more than one apple.
- If there were ten people and one apple, then it would be "people with an apple".
- If you wanted to emphasize that each person has one apple, you could say "people with an apple apiece".
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They would be "people with apples" because there is more than one apple. If there were ten people and one apple, then it would be "people with an apple". If you wanted to emphasize that each person has one apple, you could say "people with an apple apiece".
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