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Diamondrg Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

when

0Hi02br
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001. When I arrived at home, they had already had dinner.02br
02br
01font00(First they had dinner, and then I arrived.)02font02br
02br
002. When I had arrived at home, they (already) had dinner.02br
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003. When I arrived at home, they had dinner.02br
02br
01font00(First I arrived, and then they had dinner. I didn't have dinner with them.)02font02br
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004. When I had arrived at home, they had already had dinner.02br
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00Well, if grammatically correct, does 2 mean "their having dinner" preceded "my arriving at home". If yes, isn't it weird for the action exressed in the simple past to precede the action expressed in the past perfect? 02br
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00I know, torn out of context past perfect does not mean much, but if we consider it to be in a context, in what context would you use 4?0-
  

Top answer

01. When I arrived at home, they had already had dinner. 01font 00OK02font 02br 02br 002.

— Marius Hancu

  • 01.
  • When I arrived at home, they had already had dinner.
  • 01font 00OK02font 02br 02br 002.
  • When I had arrived at home, they (already) had dinner.
  • 01font 00No, bad use of past perfect.
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3 Answers
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01. When I arrived at home, they had already had dinner. 01font00OK02font02br
02br
002. When I had arrived at home, they (already) had dinner. 01font00No, bad use of past perfect. 02font02br
02br
003. When I arrived at home, they had dinner.02br
01font
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01cite10Diamondrg12cite10Hi12br
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101. When I arrived at home, they had already had dinner. 11font10good12font12br
12br
11font10(First they had dinner, and then I arrived.)12font12br
12br
102. Whe
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01cite10Philip12cite11b11font10I hope you said, "11i10Afiyet olsun12i10".12font12b12blockquote
10Hi, Philip. I see you are interested in other languages, too. That's nice. Yes, I would say, "Afiyet olsun. (read as it is written. In Turkish each
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