What's the meaning of these two sentences?

hadeshuang wrote on 08 Apr 2004:
[nq:1]I haven't spoken to my brother for two years. and I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
They both mean that "I" and "I"'s borther haven't spoken for two years, only the second sentence suggest that "I" chose not to speak to his/her brother. The first sentence merely states a fact without any implications.
I haven't spoken to my

[nq:1]I haven't spoken to my brother for two years. and I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
The first sentence is correct.
The second sentence is incorrect because although it breaks no rules of grammar it means "I haven't spoken continuously to my brother for two years", which is not something you'll ever need to say.

Adrian

[nq:2]I haven't spoken to my brother for two years. and I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
[nq:1]The first sentence is correct. The second sentence is incorrect because although it breaks no rules of grammar it means "I haven't spoken continuously to my brother for two years", which is not something you'll ever need to say.[/nq]
What nonsense! It certainly isn't inco

[nq:2]The first sentence is correct. The second sentence is incorrect ... years", which is not something you'll ever need to say.[/nq]
[nq:1]What nonsense! It certainly isn't incorrect. You might think it un-useful,but I'd still disagree. These are roughly equivalent to the ... The second of hadeshuang's phrases suggests that thespeaker is not on speaking terms with his/her brother, as CyberCy

hadeshuang > misc.education.language.english
in
[nq:1]I haven't spoken to my brother for two years. and I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
Where did you read them?

[nq:1]I haven't spoken to my brother for two years.[/nq]
= in the past two years, there have been zero occasions of you speaking to your brother
[nq:1]I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
= you haven't been speaking continuously to your brother over a period of 24 months leading up to the present day
The second sentence is very unusual and would probably not ex

Mxsmanic wrote on 10 Apr 2004:

With* "for two years", it clearly means that "My brother and I have not been on speaking terms for the past two years". To be as vague as your understanding of what that sentence *without "for two years" means, it would have to be simply "My brother and I are not on speaking terms." "These days" and "for two years" are both time adverbial clauses and

Mxsmanic > misc.education.language.english
in <
[nq:2]I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
[nq:1]= you haven't been speaking continuously to your brother over a period of 24 months leading up to the present ... the meaning given above (but who talks continuously for two years non-stop?). In most contexts, this construction would be incorrect.[/nq]
I beg to d

Mxsmanic > misc.education.language.english
in <
[nq:2]I haven't been speaking to my brother for two years.[/nq]
[nq:1]= you haven't been speaking continuously to your brother over a period of 24 months leading up to the present ... the meaning given above (but who talks continuously for two years non-stop?). In most contexts, this construction would be incorrect.[/nq]
I guess th

[nq:1]Mxsmanic > misc.education.language.english in <[/nq]
[nq:2]= you haven't been speaking continuously to your brother over ... years non-stop?). In most contexts, this construction would be incorrect.[/nq]
[nq:1]I guess that sentence means you continuously didn't want to talk with your brother in the last two years. Correct me if I am wrong.[/nq]
I think you're understanding is