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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

What's the difference tetween for and to?

I have contempt for you.

I have contempt to you.

I've learned that in these sentences, 'for' is correct but 'to' is not.

Why is that? What's the difference between them in this usage?

What's the meaning of 'for' here? Purpose? benefit? behalf?

It seems to me to also makes sense.,thought..because my emotion is directing to you..

I've also heard 'toward' is possible, which is similar to 'to', as in:

I have contempt toward you.

How come 'toward' is possible , but not 'to'?

Prepositions are so tricky.

Thanks in advance~
  

Top answer

) - only "for" and "toward(s)" are used in this situation. That's just the way the usage has evolved over hundreds of years. These are the little details of the language that native speakers instantaneously know by instinct, and which non-native speakers have great difficulty with, not having grown up speaking and hearing the language, which is the only way to know these things.

  • ) - only "for" and "toward(s)" are used in this situation.
  • That's just the way the usage has evolved over hundreds of years.
  • These are the little details of the language that native speakers instantaneously know by instinct, and which non-native speakers have great difficulty with, not having grown up speaking and hearing the language, which is the only way to know these things.
  • You've just got to learn stuff like this through experience, which is very difficult if you're not interacting with native speakers all day.
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1 Answers
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There is no logical reason why you can't use "to" (or "in," or "by," or "on," etc.) - only "for" and "toward(s)" are used in this situation. That's just the way the usage has evolved over hundreds of years. These are the little details of the language that native speakers instantaneously know by instinct, and which non-native speakers have great difficulty with, not having grown up speaking and

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