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Sabrynazulkyflyyy Posted 8 years ago
Grammar

What's the difference?

1) " I have something in me eye."

2) " I have something in my eye."

  

Top answer

They mean the same. In the first sentence, the speaker uses "me" for "my". This is a casual or dialect form that is used by certain native speakers, especially (I think) in parts of the UK.

— GPY

  • They mean the same.
  • In the first sentence, the speaker uses "me" for "my".
  • This is a casual or dialect form that is used by certain native speakers, especially (I think) in parts of the UK.
  • It is not "proper" English and you should not emulate it.
  • The relative formality of "I have" seems mismatched with "me".
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1 Answers
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They mean the same. In the first sentence, the speaker uses "me" for "my". This is a casual or dialect form that is used by certain native speakers, especially (I think) in parts of the UK. It is not "proper" English and you should not emulate it.

The relative formality of "I have" seems mismatched with "me". Something like "I got summat in me eye" would have a more consistent overall t

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