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Zoltán Király Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

What's difference in meaning between these two sentences?

He has worn this type of perfume for the last twenty-five years.
He has worn this type of perfume for twenty-five years.

If we remove the last, will the meaning change?
  

Top answer

The meaning is the same (this is because the tense "he has worn" itself indicates that the twenty-five years extends to the present).

  • The meaning is the same (this is because the tense "he has worn" itself indicates that the twenty-five years extends to the present).
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1 Answers
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The meaning is the same (this is because the tense "he has worn" itself indicates that the twenty-five years extends to the present).

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