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Nasuman Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

What tense to use in a general rule statement?

I'm confused as to what verb tense to use when I am stating a general rule. For example:

If the victim is not foreseeable, then there is no negligence since the defendant owes the victim no duty.

If the victim was not foreseeable, then there is(was?) no negligence since the defendant owed the victim no duty.

Whcih tense am I suppose to use when I'm just stating a general rule and nothing has happened yet?

Thank you in advance.
  

Top answer

Nasuman, Use the present tense to state general rules. Your sentences are difficult to understand, however, but that's a different question. CJ

  • Nasuman, Use the present tense to state general rules.
  • Your sentences are difficult to understand, however, but that's a different question.
  • CJ
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11 Answers
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Nasuman,

Use the present tense to state general rules.

Your sentences are difficult to understand, however, but that's a different question.

CJ
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Thanks for replying, CJ, but let me clarify the sentence a bit.

To establish negligence, the plaintiff has to prove that he is(was?) a forseeable victim and the defendant owes (owed?) him a duty of care.

I'm stating this as a general rule, and I believe that present tense should be used.

But, thinking more deeply, how can you have a plaintiff unless he was already
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Now I see what you mean. The main clause has to be in the present: "... the plaintiff has to prove ..." The others should be in the past.

The problem areas of the sentence are "foreseeable victim" and "owes him a duty of care", neither of which would be used in English. These expressions are not used in English and are therefore particularly difficult for a native speaker to
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Making the ssumption that 'foreseeable victim' and 'duty of care' are pieces of understood legal jargon, it's my opinion that the entire sentence would be written in the present tense. The present tense form is used to describe a general truth and what else is a principle of law but a general truth.

To establish negligence, the plaintiff has to prove that he is a forseeable victim [mean
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Thank you CJ and Just the truth. I appreciate both responses.
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Very much an IMHO; but I would not agree that the whole sentence should be in the present tense. There's a difference between a description of an action, and a description of establishing negligence in that action.

Much depends upon the system of law under which you operate; but to take a fairly standard formulation:

'To establish negligence, the plaintiff must prove that:
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Mr P stated; "There's a difference between a description of an action, and a description of establishing negligence in that action."

It seems to me, though I may have missed something, that Mr P has missed what has been asked, to wit;

The test, as stated by Nasuman was; "I'm stating this as a general rule, and I believe that present tense should be used."

Here are
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I would disagree, JT. Your examples are about negligence, not establishing negligence.

At the point where the plaintiff wishes to establish negligence, the action (or inaction) to which that negligence relates is past. Any description of that action/inaction must therefore be presented in a past tense.

To put it another way: your present-tense formulation suggests that the def
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"At the point where the plaintiff wishes to establish negligence, the action (or inaction) to which that negligence relates is past. Any description of that action/inaction must therefore be presented in a past tense."

<<<<<<<<<<<<<<

There is NO plaintiff, Mr P, nor is there any action. Once more, in case you missed it;

The test, as stated by Nasuman was; "I'm stat
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Planetary motion is a continuing process. Negligence refers to a specific incident. I suspect that any barrister who tried to prove one from the other would get a fairly rough ride from the beak.

See e.g.:

[url="http://www.supremecourt.nm.org/supctforms/jury/VIEW/13-302

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