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Vts nair Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
What is the mean difference between "is + past participle & has been +past participle"?
i am so confused with the use of these two tenses(passive).pls let me know the exact meaning of these two sentence? Ex; my arm have been fractured & my arm is fractured.
Top answer
You need "has" in your sentence. My arm has been fractured. (I've broken my arm and it's still broken now) My arm is fractured.
- You need "has" in your sentence.
- My arm has been fractured.
- (I've broken my arm and it's still broken now) My arm is fractured.
- (=my arm is now in a state of being broken ) To me, there's hardly any difference in meaning between the two sentences.
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2 Answers
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You need "has" in your sentence.
My arm has been fractured. (I've broken my arm and it's still broken now)
My arm is fractured. (=my arm is now in a state of being broken )
To me, there's hardly any difference in meaning between the two sentences.
My arm has been fractured. (I've broken my arm and it's still broken now)
My arm is fractured. (=my arm is now in a state of being broken )
To me, there's hardly any difference in meaning between the two sentences.
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my arm have been fractured & my arm is fractured.
In the second one, "fractured" is an adjective. It just tells something about the condition of your arm. My arm is swollen/sore/******/etc.
In the first one, "fractured" is a verb. It tells what happened to your arm.
You could use simple past tense: My arm
In the second one, "fractured" is an adjective. It just tells something about the condition of your arm. My arm is swollen/sore/******/etc.
In the first one, "fractured" is a verb. It tells what happened to your arm.
You could use simple past tense: My arm
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