What is the different between 2 sentence?

Question

Hi everyone,I'd like to know what is the different (in meaning) between the following sentences:    I saw the window broken.    I saw the window to have been broken.Thanks in advance.

Anonymous · Accepted Answer

I think the second sentence is quite wordy, and hence grammatically incorrect. 'To have been broken' is not a to-the-point expression. Instead, the problem could be solved by saying 'I saw the broken window' or 'The window had been broken.'

Mister Micawber · Answer

.
Wordiness and grammatical correctness are unrelated, Anon. However, the second sentence is not good English.

I saw the window broken.-- This means that you saw the window as it was broken by someone or something.
I saw that the window was broken.-- This is the way to phrase what I think you mean, i.e. that you saw the window that had previously been broken by someone or something.
.

Yadoo86 · Answer

Mister Micawber.
Wordiness and grammatical correctness are unrelated, Anon. However, the second sentence is not good English.

I saw the window broken.-- This means that you saw the window as it was broken by someone or something.
I saw that the window was broken.-- This is the way to phrase what I think you mean, i.e. that you saw the window that had previously been broken by someone or something.
.

Thanks for replay.

Actually, I know the second sentence sounds quite unnatural. However, Sometimes, I saw expressions like "cars having been listed..." and "cars to have been listed" and I don't know the difference between them.
I would always prefer to use adjective clause, so I wonder if native speakers would prefer to use long-form (like, passive-perfect-continuous) of gerund or infinitive?

Mister Micawber · Answer

.
I would have to see the specific sentences you are thinking of, yadoo. Both forms seem quite awkward to me out of context.
.

Riturj · Answer

yadoo86Hi everyone,

I'd like to know what is the different (in meaning) between the following sentences:

I saw the window broken.
I saw the window to have been broken.

Thanks in advance.

1st sentence is translated by the "voice" however, 2nd sentence is on the rule of "verb".

Avangi · Answer

yadoo86 I'd like to know what is the different (in meaning) between the following sentences:

I saw the window broken.
I saw the window to have been broken.

The first is ambiguous and the second is not.

Both can mean, "I saw that the window was broken."

The first can also mean, "I witnessed the breaking of the window."

Rafaelinrio · Answer

yadoo86I saw the window broken.
I saw the window to have been broken.

Both sentences don't look good English to me.

In the first one I think what you mean is: I saw the broken window.

In the second one the idea is probably: I saw (that) the window had been broken.

Avangi · Answer

yadoo86 I saw expressions like "cars having been listed..." and "cars to have been listed" and I don't know the difference between them.

Unless I'm mistaken, there's also quite a difference in meaning here.

"Cars having been listed" (for example, to be sold at auction) means they were in fact listed.

"Cars to have been listed" means that at some point in the past they were scheduled, or intended to be listed. The listing may or may not have been done. (Perhaps they were distroyed in a fire before the listing took place.)

This horse was to have been sold, but the owner changed his mind.

Conversationally, native speakers would probably prefer, "This horse was supposed to have been sold, etc."

Present tense is also possible. "This horse is supposed to have been sold already, but the deal may have gone sour. Let me check on it for you."

"To have been" in this construction means that the act was expected to be completed. "Was to be sold" and "was to have been sold" are the same except for this expectation.

What is the different between 2 sentence?

Top answer

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

Related Questions