0 I have searched a lot on google about perfect infinitive and have found many pages but none with proper explanation. Actually what intrigues me is that what does the the difinition "Perfect Infinitive is used for an action, idea, or condition occurring before that of another verb." mean. Consider an example;02br
02br
01i
00The coach 01u00is02u00 happy 01font00to have made02font00 Sally a team member.02br
02i02br
00Now 01i
00is happy 02i00is the verb and 01i
00to have made 02i00is the perfect infinitive. By definition, 01i
00is happy 02i00is occuring after 01i
00to have made02i00. Does this mean that the coach first made sally a part of the team and was then happy due to X,Y,Z reasons. 02br
02br
00Now consider another couple of exampes. 02br
01ol
01li- 01i00I hoped to have succeeded. 02i00(H.W Flower Manual)02li
01li- 01i00I would like to have seen the Taj Mahal when I was in India. 02i02li
02ol
00According to H.W Flower, the first one means that I hoped to succeed but I did not. From this one, we can infer that the second could be interpretted as I wanted to see Taj Mahal (when I was in India) but I didn't. Ok if we take this interpretation for granted then how does the definition (described above) could apply on these interpretation.02br
00Please explain in detail.02br
02br
00GB0-